Question: when are
land owners more likely to petition the ruler to restrict the freedom of
peasants to move around: when there are
lots of peasants or when there are only few?
That was the question asked by Professor Domar of MIT.
When peasants are numerous, their wages will be low, or
subsistence. If you have to hire them
you pay them little, if you enslave them, you still have to feed them. So slavery doesn’t make all that much sense.
The story is very different when there are only few peasants
(relative to land). Their wages would be
high and you would save yourself substantial resources if you could get the
ruler to force the peasants to work for you for free.
In 17th century Russia, Ukraine and southern
lands became open for settlement. Because
of all that land, peasants’ options improved and the land owners petitioned the
Tsar to restrict their freedoms (among others, the Law of 1658 made flight from their assigned estate a criminal
offense).
In 17th century America, the colonial administration
first tried to enslave the Indians, which didn’t work, and then tried to use
indenture d servants to run the economy, which didn’t work because of the
abundance of land. Bringing slaves from Africa became a necessity.
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